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  • March 28, 2018

    [28/Mar/2018] E20-591 Dumps Questions and Answers With DumpsExpert Team

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    A customer wants to purchase Data Protection Advisor (DPA) to support their two EMC Symmetrix arrays. One array is at the primary site and the other array is at the secondary site. The primary site has 80 TB raw of high-performance drives and the secondary site has 80 TB raw of high-capacity drives for replication. How would the DPA replication analysis option be licensed?

    A. One 80 TB high-performance and one 80 TB high-capacity
    B. One 80 TB primary site and one 80 TB secondary site
    C. One 160 TB high-capacity
    D. Two 80 TB Symmetrix

    Answer: A

    A customer uses EMC Avamar to backup 1000 servers. The servers have a combined raw capacity of 90 TBs and 75 TBs useable. The Avamar grid is licensed for 25 TB capacity.
    How would the Data Protection Advisor backup option be licensed?

    A. 25 - 1 TB licenses
    B. 50 client licenses
    C. 75 - 1 TB licenses
    D. 90 - 1 TB licenses

    Answer: A

    In addition to Microsoft Windows, which operating systems are supported by the Data Protection Advisor server component?

    A. Solaris and Linux
    B. HP-UX and Linux
    C. Solaris and AIX
    D. Solaris and HP-UX

    Answer: A

    What is a requirement for remote data collection of Fibre Channel switches in Data Protection Advisor (DPA)?

    A. SNMP credentials
    B. EMC Ionix ControlCenter is installed
    C. Homogeneous Fibre Channel infrastructure
    D. DPA server and Collector on separate hosts

    Answer: A

    Which Data Protection Advisor database remains at approximately the same size?

    A. Config
    B. Datamine
    C. Illuminator
    D. Collector

    Answer: A

    A customer wants to run Data Protection Advisor on a Solaris host without using the embedded database. Which alternate database is supported?

    A. Oracle
    B. PostgreSQL
    C. SQL
    D. iAnywhere

    Answer: A

    A customer has an EMC NetWorker server running on a Microsoft Windows host, one storage node running on a Windows host, and two storage nodes running on Solaris hosts. Data Protection Advisor (DPA) will be installed on a separate Windows host. The customer requires that system performance information be collected from the backup server and all storage nodes.

    A Collector will be installed on the DPA server by default. At a minimum, how many additional Collectors need to be deployed to gather performance information assuming all permissions are granted?

    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 3
    D. 4

    Answer: B

    You are helping a new Data Protection Advisor (DPA) user to integrate the product into their environment. They want to save reports in a portable format that they could use outside of DPA.
    Which formats can they use?

    C. CSV, PDF, XLS

    Answer: A

    A large EMC Symmetrix customer wants to use the Data Protection Advisor's (DPA) Recoverability Analysis feature to gather replication information about their environment. Which operating system(s) can be used for hosting their DPA server?

    A. Windows or Solaris
    B. Windows only
    C. Linux only
    D. Windows, Linux, or Solaris

    Answer: A

    You have recently configured Data Protection Advisor (DPA) for Recoverability Analysis in your environment. You are now explaining to new users how DPA gathers, maps, and reports on data for recoverability analysis. Which process is responsible for receiving data from the Collector and storing it in the database?

    A. Illuminator
    B. Listener
    C. Collector
    D. Controller

    Answer: A

    You are describing the different processes that make up the EMC Data Protection Advisor (DPA) system to a new DPA user. Which process is responsible for extracting data from the datamine database?

    A. Reporter
    B. Illuminator
    C. Publisher
    D. Collector

    Answer: A

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  • February 21, 2018

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    A utility company wants to transform to a DevOps and agile organization that can deliver multiple changes to their applications in production every day.

    Currently, they follow a waterfall development approach. They are organized into business, development and operations silos. They typically code using Java and COBOL and their test and staging environments are manually provisioned. They have to wait many days for test environments to be available and root cause analysis is rarely performed. Changes are often rolled back due to defects found in production and there is no way for users to provide feedback.

    Which problem should be addressed first?

    A. Align the stakeholders around common goals, KPIs and shared objectives.
    B. Re-educate the developers to code in modern languages like Node / Ruby / Python.
    C. Perform mandatory root-cause-analysis on all defects.
    D. Setup awebpage where users can log defects and improvement requests.

    Answer: A


    Which volume of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) should be an integral part of every stage of the ITIL service management framework?

    A. ITILService Design
    B. ITIL Service Operations
    C. ITIL Continual Service Improvement
    D. ITIL Service Strategy

    Answer: C


    After executing assessments and workshops, it has been determined that 80% of developments time is related to waiting for responses from various departments. What should the organization do to fix these bottlenecks?

    A. Create a global enablement plan. Once each professional has more expertise they will be able to do their job faster and improve the overall productivity.
    B. Automate the development and operation process with continuous delivery tools.
    C. Create highlyspecialized SWAT teams for requirements management, testing and deployment.
    D. Change to a dedicated cells approach, with self-sufficient teams composed of several skills.

    Answer: B


    Which statement describes a security consideration introduced by adopting DevOps principles?

    A. Adopting DevOps creates an environment that is inherently more secure because developers use cloud native development tools for their development.
    B. It is the most efficient way to test the security of the application in production since pre-production environments will lack the necessary components to accurately validate the security posture.
    C. Adoption of DevOps practices introduces complications for implementing and auditing standardized security controls,presenting issues such as constantly changing assets and continuous deployment.
    D. By design, DevOps combines the role of developer and operator of an application removing the need for separation of duties which reduces the level of risk introduced in theenvironment.

    Answer: C


    According to the IBM DevOps Reference Architecture, in which phase is artifact management a capability?

    A. Package
    B. Deliver
    C. Code
    D. Manage

    Answer: D


    A developer works in a cloud environment with IBM Bluemix and needs to deploy new versions of code to production without any downtime in their application access. Which IBM offering would provide the required functionality?

    A. IBM Cloud Orchestrator
    B. IBM Active Deploy
    C. IBMBluemix DevOps Services
    D. IBM DevOps Insights

    Answer: B


    Which IBM Bluemix Garage Method phase is supported by IBM Tealeaf CX usage?

    A. Culture
    B. Learn
    C. Think
    D. Manage

    Answer: D


    Which statement is an IT driver for adoption DevOps?

    A. To ensure all development activities are properly charged internally by ensuring cost-recovery association throughout the development lifecycle.
    B. To standardize all applications to a single development platform across an organization by porting legacy application to a cloud native environment.
    C. To accelerate and remove error from the delivery of changes by introducing automation throughout the development cycle.
    D. To ensure all cloud native applications include usage and metering capabilities for enhanced billing.

    Answer: B


    Which statement best describes IBM Runbook Automation?

    A. It is used to expose standard runbook templates for use by lines of business (LOBs) outside traditional IT staff. These runbook templates are easily customizable using Python, JSON,and XML.
    B. It is used to build and execute runbooks that can help IT staff to solve common operational problems. It can automate procedures that do not require human interaction, thereby increasing the efficiency of IT operations processes.
    C. It is usedto build and execute runbooks that can help marketing staff understand customer usage patterns. It can automate procedures to auto-respond to customer inquiries, thereby increasing the efficiency of support processes.
    D. It is used to discover existing ITprocesses and script usage. Once discovered, it can transform existing scripts into a standard automation language.

    Answer: B


    What action does the IBM Bluemix Garage Method Learn phase recommend to continuously experiment?

    A. hold playbacks
    B. run A/B tests
    C. automate unit tests
    D. leverage IBM Design Thinking

    Answer: B

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  • February 12, 2018

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    A customer is using the following subnets in their environment:

    The customer has run out of IP space in their desktop subnet. More IPs for desktops must be provided with the least disruptive change to the environment.

    Which desktop subnet meets the requirements?


    Answer: D

    Which of the following is the IPv6 loopback?

    A. 1: :/128
    B. : :0/128
    C. : :1/128
    D. 1::1/0

    Answer: C

    A technician needs to create multiple subnets to make sure there are at least 20 available IP addresses per subnet.

    Which three subnets meet the requirements for the network. (Choose three.)


    Answer: B,C,E

    A technician is applying a switch configuration to an N-Series switch to provide Internet access to all connected subnets. The technician has connected a computer and assigned it an IP address, subnet mask, DNS, and gateway address. The technician is unable to browse the Internet from that computer.

    What is causing the issue?

    A. DHCP Snooping has blocked the host.
    B. The static routes in the configuration file are incorrect.
    C. The “ip helper-address” command is configured on the switch.
    D. Spanning Tree blocked the port going to the PC.

    Answer: B

    A technician configures RIP on a new N-Series switch to connect to an existing switch that runs RIP. The routing table is not populating even after the network statements are added.

    What is a possible cause of this issue?

    A. The existing switch has not been configured with the command “hostroutesaccept”.
    B. The new switch’s interface is in the wrong subnet to form a RIP relationship.
    C. The “ip helper-address” command has not been configured on the existing switch.
    D. The other switch is not a root bridge and cannot form an RIP relationship.

    Answer: B

    A technician needs to add an IP for management. When adding an IP, the technician received the following message:

    Console (config-if-vlan1) #ip address
    Failed to set IP address on interface.

    What is causing this message?

    A. An IP cannot be assigned to VLAN 1.
    B. A subnet address cannot be assigned to a VLAN.
    C. /27 cannot be used in an address command.
    D. A host address cannot be assigned to a VLAN.

    Answer: B

    How will RIP treat packets that have exceeded the default maximum hop count?

    A. RIP will return the traffic back to the last hop and retransmit via another path.
    B. RIP will consider the destination subnet to be reachable.
    C. RIP will place traffic in a buffer until the hop count is manually reset.
    D. RIP will consider the destination subnet to be unreachable.

    Answer: D

  • February 12, 2018

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    Which Elite x3 collaboration feature enables it to merge with existing HP devices, and concentrate on one IT Portfolio and one ecosystem?

    A. Lap dock
    B. Desk dock
    C. Seamless OS
    D. Corporate apps on the go

    Answer: C

    Which HP Business PC series provides the following features?

    -an expandable enterprise-class PC
    -high-level performance
    -Elite platform features
    -outstanding value
    -higher configurations within budget

    A. HP EliteOne 800 G3
    B. HP ProDesk 400 G4
    C. HP EliteDesk 705 G3
    D. HP Elite x2 1012 G1

    Answer: A

    An HP client is facing challenges such as desktop replacement costs, data security, and data access for mobile and remote workers.

    Which solution addresses the client’s challenges?

    A. HP Thin Client
    B. HP Hybrids
    C. HP Commercial Notebooks
    D. HP Workstation

    Answer: A

    Based on the unique needs for mobile professionals and domain specialists, which user category represents the relationship with the requirements for their PC?

    A. Simple efficiency
    B. Mission critical
    C. Everyday productivity
    D. Sophisticated image

    Answer: C

    Which security feature is part of the HP Client Security Suite Gen3?

    A. HP Sure View
    B. HP Touchpoint Manager
    C. HP Sure Start with Dynamic Protection
    D. HP Device Access Manager

    Answer: C

    Which Qualcomm platform security feature is included in the Elite x3?

    A. Reset Protection
    B. Bitlocker Encryption -128 Key
    C. Anti-Roll Back
    D. Enterprise Grade VPN-SSL

    Answer: C

    What is the world’s smallest business-class desktop that delivers a high level of performance and takes care of everyday computing needs with the 7th Gen Intel processors?

    A. HP ProDesk 400 G3 DM
    B. HP ProOne 400 AIO G3
    C. HP EliteBook x360 1030 G2
    D. HP ProDesk 400 G4MT/SFF

    Answer: A

  • February 12, 2018

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    An administrator wants to add an advanced statistic to a worksheet. How can the administrator make the statistic available?


    A. Under Configuration > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

    B. Under Status > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply.

    C. No action is required. Advanced Statistics are enabled by default.

    D. Under Configuration > Dashboard > Preferences, select “Make available advanced analytics statistics” and click Apply. 

    Answer: A


    The Preferences view for enabling advanced Analytics, which will make many more statistics available.



    A storage administrator wants to give an operator the authority to update system software. Which privilege should be assigned to the operator?


    A. Hardware

    B. System

    C. Update

    D. Services

    E. Users 

    Answer: C


    TABLE, User Available Scopes

    References: Oracle ZFS Storage Appliance Administration Guide (June 2014), page 132 


    With which option would you configure a storage pool to meet the requirement of highest performance and high availability for random disk IOPS?

    A. RAID-5

    B. RAID-ZR

    C. RAID-1

    D. RAID-Z2

    E. RAID-Z3 

    Answer: E


    Z3 is triple-disk failure protection within a multiple disk set, where stripe width var pool disk count.

    Data is triply mirrored, yielding a very highly reliable and high-performing system (for example, storage for a critical database). This configuration is intended for situations in which maximum performance and availability are required. Compared with a two-way mirror, a three-way mirror adds additional IOPS per stored block and higher level protection against failures.


    A storage administrator has completed initial configuration and is going to access the BUI. What should you do to access the BUI?


    A. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.

    B. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215.

    C. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:225.

    D. Direct your browser to the system by using the IP address you assigned to the NET-1 port during initial configuration as follows: http://ipaddress:215. 

    Answer: A


    The ZFSSA Browser User Interface (BUI) is the graphical tool for administration of the appliance. The BUI provides an intuitive environment for administration tasks, visualizing concepts, and analyzing performance data. The BUI provides an uncluttered environment for visualizing system behavior and identifying performance issues with the appliance.

    Direct your browser to the system using either the IP address or host name you assigned to the NET-0 port during initial configuration as follows: https://ipaddress:215 or https://hostname:215. The login screen appears.




    Which two features are available when ZFS Storage Appliances are clusters?


    A. A peer appliance can provide service while repairs are being performed.

    B. Load balancing among multiple heads is allowed.

    C. Clients are provided with a unified file system namespace across multiple appliances.

    D. Rolling upgrade of software is allowed.


    Answer: A,D


    As an alternative to incurring hours or days of downtime while the head is repaired, clustering allows a peer appliance to provide service while repair or replacement is performed.

    Clusters support rolling upgrade of software, which can reduce the business disruption associated with migrating to newer software.

  • February 12, 2018

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    Which Junos Space application integrates with the Sky ATP application?

    A. Virtual Director
    B. Connectivity Services Director
    C. Security Director
    D. Network Director

    Answer: C 

    Which two products are considered SDN controllers? (Choose two)

    A. VMware NSX
    B. AppFormix
    C. Junos Space
    D. Contrail Networking

    Answer: C,D 

    What operates below the virtualization layer in an NFV system?

    A. The NFV management and orchestration components
    B. the virtualized network functions (VNFs)
    C. the compute, storage, and network hardware
    D. the OSS and BSS management systems

    Answer: C 

    What is a primary function of an underlay network?

    A. to advertise Internet routes into an overlay network
    B. to advertise loopback interfaces to establish an overlay network
    C. to advertise server interfaces to establish an overlay network
    D. to advertise client host routes into an overlay network

    Answer: D

    What are two virtualized components of a vMX? (Choose two)

    A. VFP
    B. vNIC
    C. vSwitch
    D. VCP

    Answer: A,D

    What are two requirements for provisioning a device using ZTP? (Choose two)

    A. The network must have a DHCP server
    B. The network must support VPN tunnels
    C. The network must have a hosted server that stores the device image and configuration
    D. The network must have an NTP server

    Answer: A,C 

    Juniper Networks SD-WAN feature is part of which product offering?

    A. NorthStar
    B. Cloud CPE solution
    C. Sky ATP
    D. Contrail Cloud

    Answer: B


    Which two Juniper NFV products would be used to provide IPsec VPN termination between a public cloud provider and your network? (Choose two)

    A. vQFX
    B. vSRX
    C. vMX
    D. vRR

    Answer: B,C

  • January 31, 2018

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    QUESTION NO: 232

    Which configuration item accepts named VLANs as a parameter? (Select three )

    A. RADIUS Server attributes for role derivation
    B. Authentication Server attributes for server derivation
    C. User Role for single VLAN
    D. Port trunk configuration
    E. Firewall session rule

    Answer: ABC

    QUESTION NO: 233

    Which system clock parameter settings can be configured for an Aruba controller using the Web GUI? (Select three)

    A. Service priority
    B. Time Zone
    C. NTP authentication
    D. NTP server access method.
    E. Day/night saving time.

    Answer: BCD


    QUESTION NO: 234

    An administrator wants Aps to boot and discover the master controller in a master-local topology. After connect to the master, the Aps will connect to the appropriate local controller based on the AP Group configuration. DNS will be used to discover the master controller’s IP address?

    A. aruba-discovery

    Answer: D

    QUESTION NO: 235

    An administrator supports a wireless network that includes Aruba Mobility controllers and Aruba Aps. The network has on Virtual AP (VAP) profile configured for employees and one VAP profile configured for guests. The network has 200 employees now, but, because of rapid expansion and the move to a brand new campus network, the number of employees is expected to increase to over 500. The administrator wants to continue to use only two VAPs to keep the WLAN implementation simple.

    Which feature should the administrator implement for the employee VAP that will allow it to scale to a large number of users?

    A. Source NAT
    B. VLAN Mobility
    C. VLAN Pools
    D. IP Mobility

    Answer: C

    QUESTION NO: 236

    An administrator sets up a captive portal tor guest access with these specifications:

    * VLAN 18 for the guest users will terminate on the controller and will not extend into the corporate network.
    * Aps that advertise the guest SSID will tunnel traffic to the controller, and the controller will authenticate the users.
    * Once the users are authenticated, the user traffic will be translated to a different VLAN before it is forwarded to the corporate network to reach the internet.

    When the administrator sets up this solution, the users fails to see the captive portal web page for authentication and cannot access the internet. The administrator determines the problem is that the guest VLAN does not have any ports associated to it on the control-ler.

    Which CLI command should the administrator implement to resolve the issue?

    A. interface vlan 19 no shutdown
    B. vlan 18 operstate up
    C. vlan 18 enable
    D. interface blan 19 operstate up.

    Answer: D

    QUESTION NO: 237

    An administrator provisions a Remote AP (RAP) and plans to install it at a branch office. The adminis-trator tries to determine which discovery method should be used for the RAP to discover and connect to the corporate office controller across the internet.

    Which method would cause the RAP to fail to discover and connect to the corporate office controller?

    A. DNS
    B. DHCP
    C. LMS IP address in the AP Group
    D. Aruba Discovery Protocol (ADP)

    Answer: C

    QUESTION NO: 238

    An administrator configures a Virtual AP (VAP) profile for an AP Group Which profiles must the admin-istrator reference in the VAP configuration so that the VAP is functional and the WLAN can be used to connect wireless users to the network? (Select two.)

    A. AAA
    B. Radio Settings
    C. SSID
    D. VLAN Profile
    E. System Profile

    Answer: AC


    QUESTION NO: 239

    Which DHCP option does an Aruba AP use to identity itself as an Aruba AP when it ac-quires IP addressing information from a DHCP server?

    A. 43
    B. 47
    C. 60
    D. 4500

    Answer: A

    QUESTION NO: 240

    An administrator implements a WLAN virtual AP (VAP) to authenticate employee access on Aruba Mobility Controller in a master-local topology. However, when testing wireless access from a Windows client the administrator sees the pop-up window show in the exhibit:

    What should the administrator do to solve this problem?

    A. Add a client certificate from the same CA used to obtain the controller’s certificate on the Windows client.
    B. Add the root certificate for the corresponding controller identity certificate on the windows client.
    C. Configure the client’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the Windows client.
    D. Define the controller’s certificate as a trusted certificate on the windows client.

    Answer: A

    QUESTION NO: 241

    Examine this configuration file segment of an Aruba Mobility Controller

    ip access-list session anewone
    user network any permit
    user host any deny
    user any any permit

    What can an administrator conclude from this file segment? (Select three)

    A. Any traffic originating from will be denied
    B. Any traffic going to destination will be permitted
    C. Any traffic going to destination win be denied
    D. This is an Ethertype Access Control List (ACL)
    E. This is an extended Access Control List (ACL)
    F. Any Traffic going to destination will be denied.

    Answer: BDE